Saturday, March 14, 2009

Andhra Bank I.T. Officers’ Exam held in 2008

6:06:00 PM Andhra Bank I.T. Officers’ Exam held in 2008 No comments

Andhra Bank I.T. Officers’ Exam held in 2008

1. How many such pairs of letters are there
in the word REFORM each of which has as many
letters between them in the word as in the English
alphabet?
(1) None (2) One
(3) Two (4) Three
(5) More than three
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way and so form a group. Which is the one that does
not belong to that group?
(1) 19 (2) 35 (3) 15
(4) 21 (5) 27
3. In a certain code BOARD is written as ‘53798’
and TRAIN is written as ‘29714’. How is BAIT written
in that code?
(1) 5714 (2) 5412
(3) 5712 (4) 5912
(5) None of these
4. How many such digits are there in the number
84315269 each of which is as far away from the
beginning of the number as when the digits are
rearranged in ascending order?
(1) None (2) One
(3) Two (4) Three
(5) More than three
5. For of the following five are alike in a certain
way and so form a group. Which is the one that does
not belong to that group?
(1) Fluorine (2) Methane
(3) Hydrogen (4) Chlorine
(5) Nitrogen
6. How many meaningful English words can be
made with the letters ODME using each letter only
once in each word?
(1) None (2) One
(3) Two (4) Three
(5) More than three
7. ‘BE’ is related to ‘FI’ and ‘LO’ is related to ‘PS’
in the same way as ‘RU’ is related to ___ .
(1) VY (2) WZ
(3)VZ (4) VX
(5) None of these
8. If only each of the consonants in the word
GROUNDS is changed to the next letter in the English
alphabet, which of the following will be the third letter
from the right end?
(1) O (2) U (3) S
(4) V (5) None of these
9. What should come next in the following letter
series?
A A C A C E A C E G A C E G I A C E G I
(1) J (2) K (3) A
(4) L (5) None of these
10. Mohan walked 20 metres towards North, took
a left turn and walked 10 metres, then he took a right
turn and walked 20 metres, again he took a right turn
and walked 10 metres. How far is he now from the
starting point?
(1) 20 metres
(2) 30 metres
(3) 40 metres
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
11-13. Following questions are based on the
information given below.
(i) ‘P × Q’ means ‘P is mother of Q’.
(ii) ‘P ÷ Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’.
(iii) ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is brother of Q’.
(iv) ‘P – Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’.
11. Which of the following means ‘M is nephew of
N’?
(1) M + R – N
(2) N ÷ T – M + J
(3) N ÷ T– M ÷ J
(4) N + T × M ÷ J
(5) None of these
12. Which of the following means ‘R is paternal
grandfather of T’?
(1) T ÷ K – M – R
(2) R × M + T + D
(3) R – M – T ÷ D
(4) R – M × T ÷ D
(5) None of these
13. How is K related to D in the expression :
D ÷ F – T + K?
(1) Nephew
(2) Niece
(3) Nephew or Niece
(4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
Q. 14-16. These questions are based on the five
three-digit numbers given below:
813 967 429 295 648
14. If the positions of the first and the third digits
in each of the numbers are interchanged, which of the
following will be the middle digit of the lowest number?
(1) 1 (2) 6 (3) 2
(4) 9 (5) 6
15. If the positions of the second and the third
digits in each of the numbers are interchanged, which of
the following will be the sum of the three digits of the
highest number?
(1) 12 (2) 22 (3) 15
(4) 16 (5) 18
16. If the positions of the first and the second
digits of each of the numbers are interchanged, which
of the following will be the third digit of the second
highest number?
(1) 3 (2) 7 (3) 9
(4) 5 (5) 8
Q. 17-22. In each of the questions below are given
four statements followed by three conclusions
numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance from commonly known facts. Read all the
conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given
statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
17. All boats are rivers.
Some rivers are chains.
All chains are trees.
Some trees are cars.
Conclusions:
I. Some cars are boats.
II. Some trees are rivers.
III. Some trees are boats.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only III follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only I and II follow
(5) None of these
Statements:
18. Some benches are trucks.
All trucks are tempos.
Some tempos are windows.
All windows are doors.
Conclusions:
I. Some tempos are benches.
II. Some doors are trucks.
III. Some windows are benches.
(1) Only I and II follow
(2) Only I and III follow
(3) Only II and III follow
(4) All follow
(5) None of these
Statements:
19. All flowers are chairs.
All chairs are tables.
All tables are houses.
All houses are forests.
Conclusions:
I. Some forests are chairs.
II. Some houses are flowers.
III. Some tables are flowers.
(1) Only I and II follow
(2) Only II and III follow
(3) Only I and III follow
(4) All follow
(5) None of these
Statements:
20. Some pens are papers.
Some papers are chalks.
Some chalks are desks.
Some desks are pencils.
Conclusions:
I. Some desks are pens.
II. Some chalks are pencils.
III. Some pens are pencils.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II and III follow
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only I and III follow
(5) None follows
Statements:
21. All fruits are shirts.
No shirt is bus.
Some buses are trains.
All trains are ships.
Conclusions:
I. Some ships are fruits.
II. Some ships are buses.
III. No ship is fruit.
(1) Only either I or III follows
(2) Only either I or III and II follow
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only I and III follow
(5) None follows
Statements:
22. Some cabins are walls.
All walls are rooms.
All rooms are schools.
No school is college.
Conclusions:
I. Some colleges are cabins.
II. Some schools are walls.
III. Some rooms are cabins.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) Only II and III follow
(5) None of these
Q. 23-28. Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below:
M 3 I J % R T 4 B 9 A K # W @ 2 H 1 F © N 5 $ U 6 Z 7
★ Y 8 E
23. Which of the following is the fifth to the left
of the twelfth from the left end of the above
arrangement?
(1) H (2) T (3) 6
(4) @ (5) None of these
24. How many such numbers are there in the
above arrangement, each of which is immediately
preceded by a vowel and immediately followed by a
symbol?
(1) None (2) One
(3) Two (4) Three
(5) More than three
25. Which of the following is the seventh to the
right of the twentieth from the right end of the above
arrangement?
(1) # (2) 6 (3) F
(4) T (5) None of these
26. How many such consonants are there in the above
arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a
symbol but not immediately followed by a letter?
(1) None (2) One
(3) Two (4) Three
(5) More than three
27. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way based on their positions in the above arrangement
and so form a group. Which is the one that does not
belong to that group?
(1) K W A (2) R 4 %
(3) © 5 F (4) 6 7 U
(5) T % 4
28. What should come in place of the question mark
(?) in the following series based on the above arrangement?
3 I % 4 B A W @ H ?
(1) © N 5 (2) © 5 $
(3) © 5 U (4) © N U
(5) None of these
Qs. 29-34. In the following questions, the symbols
@, ©, %, $ and ★ are used with the following meaning
as illustrated below.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P ★ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller
than Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to
Q’.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to
Q’.
Now in each of the following questions assuming
the given statements to be true, find which of the two
conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely
true? Give answer:
(1) if only Conclusion I is true.
(2) if only Conclusion II is true.
(3) if either Conclusion I or II is true.
(4) if neither Conclusion I nor II is true.
(5) if both Conclusions I and II are true.
Statements:
29. R $ T, T @ J, J % M
Conclusions:
I. R % M
II. T % M
Statements:
30. H ★ D, D © F, F $ K
Conclusions:
I. F $ H
II. K ★ H
Statements:
31. W % R, R $ B, B @ D
Conclusions:
I. D % W
II. B @ W
Statements:
32. M © T, T @ R, R ★ F
Conclusions:
I. F % T
II. R % M
Statements:
33. B @ D, D % T, T $ N
Conclusions:
I. T ★ B
II. D % N
Statements:
34. F ★ M, M © N, N @ W
Conclusions:
I. N % F
II. N ★ F
Q. 35-40. In each question below is given a group
of digits/symbols followed by four combinations
of letters numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have
to find out which of the four combinations correctly
represents the group of digits/symbols based
on the following coding system and mark the number
of that combination as your answer. If none of the
combinations correctly represents the group of
digits/symbols, mark (5) i.e. ‘None of these’ as your
answer.
Digit/Symbol : 8 @ 1 3 © 9 % 5 ★7 # 6 $ 4 2 δ
Letter Code : F H R A D I W E Q U T J V P M B
Conditions:
(i) If the first unit in the group is a symbol and
the last unit is an odd digit, the codes are to
be interchanged.
(ii) If the first unit in the group is an even digit
and the last unit is a symbol, both are to be
coded as ‘X’.
(iii) If both the first and the last units of the group
are symbols, both are to be coded as the code
for the first unit.
35. 5★679#
(1) TQJUIE (2) XQJUIX
(3) TQJUIT (4) EQJUIT
(5) None of these
36. @195%8
(1) HRIEWF (2) XRIEWX
(3) HRIFWH (4) FROEWH
(5) None of these
37. ©3%249
(1) XAWMPX (2) DAWMPI
(3) IAWMPD (4) IWMAPD
(5) None of these
38. 639δ8$
(1) JAIBFV (2) XAIBFX
(3) VAIBFJ (4) JAIBFJ
(5) None of these
39. %8562δ
(1) WFEJMB (2) XFEJMX
(3) BFEJMW (4) BFEJMB
(5) None of these
40. 94%★$7
(1) IWPRVU (2) IPWQVU
(3) UPWQVI (4) IPWVQU
(5) None of these
Q. 41-45. Study the following information carefully
and answer the questions given below:
B, D, F, H, K, W, M and T are sitting around a circle
facing at the centre. F is third to the left of D who is
second to the left of H. B is fourth to the right of H. K is
third to the right of M who is not an immediate neighbour
of F. T is not an immediate neighbour of B or D.
41. Who is to the immediate right of T?
(1) K (2) F
(3) H (4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
42. Who is second to the left of B?
(1) T (2) K
(3) D (4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
43. Who is sitting between D and B?
(1) T (2) F
(3) M (4) W
(5) Data inadequate
44. Who is third to the left of H?
(1) W (2) F
(3) B (4) Data inadequate
(5) None of these
45. What is T’s position with respect to W?
(1) Third to the right
(2) Third to the left
(3) Second to the left
(4) Second to the right
(5) None of these
Q. 46-55. Following are the criteria laid down by a
company for selection of Marketing Officer:
The candidate must:
(i) be a graduate in any discipline passed with at
least 55% marks.
(ii) have completed post graduate degree or
diploma in Marketing Management with at least
65% marks.
(iii) be not less than 21 years and not more than 28
years of age as on 1.9.2008.
(iv) have working experience of at least one year.
(v) have secured at least 50% marks each in the
selection test and interview.
However, if a candidate satisfies all the abovementioned
criteria except:
(a) at (i) above, but has secured at least 75% marks
in HSC, his/her case is to be referred to the
Marketing Head.
(b) at (iv) above, but is willing to sign a bond for
five years, his/her case is to be referred to the
HR-Head.
In each question below, details of one candidate are
provided. You have to take an appropriate decision
based on the information provided and the criteria
indicated above and mark your answer as one of the
choices given below. You are not to assume anything
other than the information provided in each question.
All these cases are given to you as on 1.9.2008. Mark
answer:
(1) if the case is to be referred to the Marketing
Head.
(2) if the case is to be referred to the HR Head.
(3) if the data provided is inadequate to take a
decision.
(4) if the candidate is to be selected.
(5) if the candidate is not to be selected.
46. Naresh Kumar is B.Sc. passed in first class with
65% marks. He has completed a post graduate diploma
in Marketing Management with 70% marks. Thereafter,
he has been working for the last two years as an ITOfficer.
He has secured 53% marks in interview and 56%
marks in selection test. His date of birth is 22.8.1983.
47. Mohan has passed B. Com. degree examination
in second class with 58% marks and MBA marketing in
first class with 67% marks. He has scored 83% marks in
HSC. He has been working as an officer since June 2007
in a private organisation. He has cleared the selection
test with 62% marks. He has completed 25 years of age
in February 2008.
48. Suvarna Bhatt is a computer engineering
graduate passed with 50% marks and MBA marketing
with 72% marks. She has scored 78% marks in SSC and
84% marks in HSC. She scored 53% and 56% marks in
selection test and interview respectively. She is working
as an officer in a marketing firm for the last two years.
Her date of birth is 17.8.1982.
49. Aneesh is B.Sc (IT) passed in first class with
62% marks and has completed post-graduate diploma in
Marketing Management with 70% marks. He scored 72%
marks in HSC. He has been working with a private firm
for the last six months as a Junior Officer. He has
cleared the selection test and interview with 61% and
56% marks respectively. He is willing to sign a bond for
five years. He has completed 26 years of age on 21st
June 2008.
50. Rashmi has passed B.Sc. with 52% marks and
M.Sc. with 57% marks. She has also completed MBAMarketing
with 69% marks. She scored 73% marks in
SSC as well as in HSC, scored 56% marks in selection
test and 59% marks in interview. She is willing to sign a
bond for five years. Her date of birth is 15.4.1984. She
has been working since April 2006.
51. Shobhana has recently completed 24 years of
age on 1st August 2008. She has secured 78% marks in
HSC, 58% marks in B.A. and 68% marks in P.G. Diploma
in Marketing. She has been working since December
2007. She has cleared the selection test with 62% marks
and interview with 64% marks. She is willing to sign a
bond for five years.
52. Nachiket has passed graduate and post
graduate degrees in Marketing Management with 67%
and 69% marks respectively. His date of birth is
16.9.1985. He has secured 65% and 60% marks in
interview and selection test respectively.
53. Vandana is a graduate with economics passed
with 62% marks and a post graduate in Marketing
Management passed with 76% marks. She has been
working for last two years after completing MBA. She
has cleared the selection test with 54% marks and
interview with 62% marks. Her date of birth is
11.7.1981.
54. Nishad is a B. Com. passed with 56%
marks and MBA-Marketing passed with 63% marks. His
date of birth is 24.3.1984. He is willing to sign a bond
for five years. He has secured 54% marks in the selection
test and 51% marks in interview. His date of birth
is 25.4.1985.
55. Sushant has passed degree examination in
Commerce with 52% marks and MBA marketing in first
class with 72% marks. He has secured 84% marks in HSC
examination, 53% marks in selection test and 59% marks
in interview. He has been working as an officer in a
private firm for the last two years. His date of birth is
29.6.1983.
Q. 56-60. Given an input line of numbers and
words, a machine rearranges them step by step
following certain rules as explained in the following
illustration:
Input : 36 48 cracking mirror jokes 12 56 image
Step I : 56 36 48 cracking mirror jokes 12 image
Step II : 56 cracking 36 48 mirror jokes 12 image
Step III : 56 cracking 48 36 mirror jokes 12 image
Step IV : 56 cracking 48 image 36 mirror jokes 12
Step V : 56 cracking 48 image 36 jokes mirror 12
Step VI : 56 cracking 48 image 36 jokes 12 mirror
Arrangement in Step VI is the final
arrangement.
The questions below are to be answered following
the same rules.
56. If ‘78 days junction 45 63 follow system 32’ is
the second step of an input, how many more steps are
required to complete the arrangement?
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 2 (5) None of these
57. Which of the following is the third step of
input ‘46 gear 39 58 box sound high 83’?
(1) 83 box 58 gear 46 39 sound high
(2) 83 box 58 39 gear 46 sound high
(3) 83 box 58 46 gear 39 sound high
(4) 83 box 58 gear 39 46 sound high
(5) None of these
58. Step III of an input is ‘87 cat 75 goal 56 63 road
lost’.
What is definitely the input?
(1) cat goal 87 56 road 75 63 lost
(2) goal cat 87 56 road 75 63 lost
(3) goal cat 87 75 road 56 63 lost
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
59. What will be the sixth step of an input whose
second step is given below?
Step II : 69 fun night 32 last 48 research 53
(1) 69 fun 53 last night 48 32 research
(2) 69 fun 53 last 48 night research 32
(3) 69 fun 53 last 48 research night 32
(4) There will be no sixth step
(5) None of these
60. If the first step of an input is ‘72 fire green 43
62 pure target 50’, which step will be the last but one??
(1) 3rd (2) 4th (3) 5th
(4) 2nd (5) None of these

ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS
1. (5) EF, OM, OR and MO.
2. (1) It is the only prime number.
3. (3)
4. (4) 3, 5 and 9.
5. (5) The only unreactive gas, Fluorine—poisonous,
Chlorine—irritant,
6. (3) MODE and DOME.
7. (1) 8. (1) 9. (2)
10. (3)
11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (3)
14. (1) 15. (2) 16. (2)
17. (3)

18. (5)

19. (4)

20. (5)

21. (2)

22. (4)
23. (2) 24. (1)
25. (3) 26. (4)
27. (5)
28. (5) © N $
Qs. 29-34. Decode the symbols.
© is <; $ is >; ★ is =; @ is <; % is >
29. (4) R > T; T <> M
30. (1) H = D; D <> K
31. (2) W > R; R > B; B < r =" F"> T; T > N
34. (3) F = M; M < N; N < W
35. (4) 36. (1)
37. (3) 38. (2)
39. (5) 40. (2)
41. (1)
42. (2)
43. (4)
44. (1)
45. (5)
46. (4) 47. (3)
48. (1) 49. (2)
50. (5) 51. (2)
52. (3) 53. (4)
54. (5) 55. (1)
56-60. The machine arranges the numbers and words
alternately starting with a number. The numbers
are in descending order (i.e. starting with the
highest) and the words alphabetically.
56. (2) II 78 days junction 45 63 follow system 32
III 78 days 63 junction 45 follow system 32
IV 78 days 63 follow junction 45 system 32
V 78 days 63 follow 45 junction system 32
VI 78 days 63 follow 45 junction 32 system
57. (3) No need to write the steps, 83, box, 58 and the
remaining words in the same order is your
answer.
58. (4) The jumbled words and numbers in an input
follow no order.
59. (2) The next four numbers and words would be
arranged in order.
60. (1) I 72 fire green 43 62 pure target 50.
II 72 fire 62 green 43 pure target 50.
III 72 fire 62 green 50 43 pure target.
IV 72 fire 62 green 50 pure 43 target.

Descriptive questions from previous bank exams

6:01:00 PM Descriptive questions from previous bank exams No comments

1. The Lehmann Crash

2. The market downslide

3. Leadership is doing the right things; Management is doing things right

4. Corporate Social Responsibility benefits the bottom line

5. Has globalization really worked?

6. Integrity at work

7. Buying options: A matter of trust

8. People: The most important asset of any enterprise

9. The second great crash

10. Management styles: Why things go wrong?

11. Do we need to dress for success?

12. What do Chief Executive Officers do?

13. The element of Risk in management.

14. Outsourcing to reduce risk

15. Management is what managers do

16. Terrorism benefits whom

17. Nation’s growth must be inclusive

18. Chandrayaan - One giant leap for Indian Astrophysicists

19. The secret to winning more gold in the Olympics

20. The ban on smoking- Gimmick or success

21. Why does a nation need forex reserves?

22. What makes you a suitable candidate for an MBA?

23. Is India really shining?

24. What is revenue deficit?

25. What is the job of the Manager?

26. Is democracy working for India?

27. Performance appraisal- A Useful tool for growth

28. Corruption an outcome of Democracy

29. Agricultural subsidies: A Boon or a Bane

30. Do we need a dictator?

31. Does the media need censorship?

32. Reforms in education - a necessity

33. Management objective- Maximise profits

34. Classroom learning vs experiential learning

35. Is democracy hampering our growth?

36. Is peace and non-violence for the 20th century only?

37. Is India safe for its citizens?

38. One can make a difference

39. What does 15th August mean to me?

40. Is Gandhi relevant today?

41. I believe, success in life comes from……………..

42. Dependence on computers a blessing or bane

43. Can I succeed without an MBA?

44. Voters and not politicians responsible for criminalization of politics

45. Business ethics - A necessity or luxury

46. Cricket a national obsession- detrimental to other sport

47. Will a presidential form of government help India better?

48. Is Obama good for India?

49. Can politics be delinked from Indian sport?

50. Who must take care of the environment?

Friday, March 13, 2009

Punjab National Bank P.O. Exam Solved Paper

9:45:00 PM Punjab National Bank P.O. Exam Solved Paper No comments

Punjab National Bank P.O. Exam Solved Paper

General Awareness

(Held on May 4, 2008)

1. Nav Krishi is a programme by—
(1) Door Darshan
(2) All India Radio
(3) NIC
(4) ICRISAT
(5) MANAGE

2. One Acre is equal to…………..hectare.
(1) 0.0541
(2) 0.8032
(3) 0.1082
(4) 0.2514
(5) 0.4047

3. SRI technology is practiced for the cultivation of—
(1) Fruits
(2) Vegetables
(3) Flowers
(4) Rice
(5) Wheat

4. If the soil pH 9.2, then the soil is—
(1) Acidic
(2) Neutral
(3) Alkaline
(4) Saline
(5) Sodic

5. …………..is used for the reclamation of acidic soil—
(1) Lime
(2) Gypsum
(3) Sulphur
(4) Calcium Chloride
(5) Ferrous Sulphate

6. 2008 is declared as International Year of—
(1) Rice
(2) Wheat
(3) Sugarcane
(4) Potato
(5) Apple

7. Golden revolution refers to the development of—
(1) Oilseeds
(2) Pulses
(3) Horticulture
(4) Cereals
(5) Fodder

8. The most important rabi pulse crop in India is—
(1) Chickpea
(2) Soyabean
(3) Pigeon pea
(4) Green gram
(5) Black gram

9. RFLP (Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism) is—
(1) Growth promoter
(2) Molecular marker
(3) Growth retardent
(4) Herbicide
(5) Germicide

10. National Commission on Farmers was chaired by—
(1) Sri Som Pal
(2) Sri Y.C. Nanda
(3) Dr C. Rangarajan
(4) Dr M.S. Swaminathan
(5) Sri Sharad Pawar

11. Global Positioning Systems are useful for—
(1) Determining precise location (latitude and longitude) based on radio signal
(2) Determining precise distance based on radio signal
(3) Determining general pest system
(4) Determining disease forecast
(5) Determining area of farm

12. Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) recommends—
(1) Comfort Price
(2) State Advised Price
(3) Minimum Support Price
(4) Minimum Export Price
(5) Statutory Minimum Price

13. NPV (Nuclear Polyhedrosis Virus) is—
(1) Pest
(2) Pathogen
(3) Bio pesticide
(4) Bio fungicide
(5) Bio control agent

14. National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation is known as—
(1) NIAM
(2) NAFED
(3) MARKFED
(4) NACMF
(5) NACOM

15. Which insect is known as farmers' enemy No.1?
(1) Bollworm
(2) Desert locust
(3) Aphids
(4) Stem borer
(5) Fruit fly

16. Indian Institute of Forest management is located at—
(1) Chennai
(2) Bhopal
(3) Hissar
(4) Dehradun
(5) Imphal

17. In India forests account for about …………..of land surface.
(1) 11%
(2) 22%
(3) 33%
(4) 14%
(5) 25%

18. VAM is an alternative to inorganic fertilizer. VAM is—
(1) Azospirillum
(2) Mycorrhiza
(3) Phosphate solubilising bacteria
(4) Nitrogen fixing bacteria
(5) Azotobacter

19. An example of Single Cell Protein is—
(1) agar agar
(2) spirulina
(3) rhizobium
(4) acetobacter
(5) salmonella

20. Major producer of mulberry silk in India—
(1) Karnataka
(2) Jammu and Kashmir
(3) Jharkhand
(4) Assam
(5) Himachal Pradesh

21. Bird flu affects—
(1) Cattle
(2) Poultry
(3) Sheep
(4) Prawn
(5) Silkworm

22. Minor irrigation scheme comprises several types of works with capacities to irrigate upto—
(1) 2000 acre
(2) 2000 ha
(3) 1000 ha
(4) 1000 acre
(5) 2500 ha

23. Ideal NPK ratio for Indian soils is—
(1) 8 : 4 : 2
(2) 4 : 2 : 1
(3) 9 : 5 : 3
(4) 2 : 1 : 0.5
(5) 10 : 4 : 2

24. Which of the following is a bio diesel plant?
(1) Jatropha
(2) Rose
(3) Pepper
(4) Noni
(5) Teak

25. National Research Centre on Plant Biotechnology is situated at—
(1) Nagpur
(2) New Delhi
(3) Mumbai
(4) Kolkata
(5) Chennai

Answers :
1. (1) 2. (5) 3. (4) 4. (3) 5. (1)
6. (4) 7. (3)8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (4)
11. (1) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (2) 15. (3)
16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (2) 19. (2) 20. (1)
21. (2) 22. (3) 23. (2) 24. (1) 25. (2)

Indian Overseas Bank Probationary Officers Exam., General Awareness (Held on 15-6-2008)

9:43:00 PM Indian Overseas Bank Probationary Officers Exam 1 comment

Indian Overseas Bank Probationary Officers Exam.,

General Awareness

(Held on 15-6-2008)

1. As we all know rise of the ‘BRICs’ has left a vast impact on almost all aspects of the global economy. However, which of the following cannot be called as the direct effect(s) of ‘Rise of the BRICs’ on global/other powerful economy/economies ?
1. Countries like China wish to learn more about outsourcing from India.
2. It has made countries to suffer from Sub-prime Crisis.
3. EURO has become a powerful currency and many non-Euro countries are in ‘Swap Agreement’ with various nations.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these

2. As per the reports published in the newspapers/journals how much amount the Govt. of India is planning to infuse in Public Sector Banks to make them competitive and strong globally ?
About—
(A) Rs. 10,000 crore
(B) Rs. 15,000 crore
(C) Rs. 20,000 crore
(D) Rs. 25,000 crore
(E) Rs. 30,000 crore

3. What is the maximum stake the Govt. of India has in any public sector bank at present ?
(A) 40%
(B) 49%
(C) 50%
(D) 64%
(E) 74%

4. Which of the following is not a major highlight of the Union Budget 2008-09 ?
1. A target of Rs. 2•80 lakhs crore is fixed for providing credit to agriculture sector.
2. Limit of the Banking Cash Transaction Tax is raised from present 1% to 1•5%.
3. PAN requirement is not mandatory for financial transactions. Other Ids are also acceptable.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 2 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3

5. As per the news in major financial newspapers a ‘Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana’ is launched in Delhi and Haryana States for members of unorganized sectors. Under the scheme each family is likely to get the benefit of Rs.………
(A) 15,000
(B) 20,000
(C) 25,000
(D) 30,000
(E) 50,000

6. As proposed in the Union Budget 2008-09 a ‘Risk Capital Fund’ is set up by the Govt. of India. Who amongst the following will maintain and operate that fund ?
(A) NABARD
(B) SIDBI
(C) ECGC
(D) RBI
(E) None of these

7. As per the Economic Survey 2007-08 presented in the Lok Sabha in February 2008, what has been the percentage growth in Bank credit ? About—
(A) 10%
(B) 15%
(C) 18%
(D) 21%
(E) 26%

8. As per the budget of the Indian Railways for 2008-09 the operating ratio of the railways has—
(A) Improved only by 0•5%
(B) Decreased by 0•5%
(C) Remained at the same level on which it was in 2007-08
(D) Reached at the level of 81%
(E) Reduced to the level of 63% which was the level of 2000-01

9. The government of India has launched a new scheme for the ‘Girl Child’. What is the name of the scheme ?
(A) Raj Lakshmi
(B) Rani Bitia
(C) Dhan Lakshmi
(D) Aanandita
(E) None of these

10. The President of India recently signed the much-awaited notification for the implementation of the suggestions made by the ‘Delimitation Commission’.
What will be the effect of this notification ?
(A) Parliamentary and Assembly constituencies will be redefined
(B) Candidates from SC/ST categories will get all benefits for another 15 years’ time
(C) The boundaries of the National Capital, New Delhi will be extended further
(D) Operations of the Cooperative Banks and Societies will not be limited to the state of their origin. They will also be like Public Sector Banks
(E) None of these

11. As per the new policy the number of Judges in the Supreme Court would be now—
(A) 21
(B) 25
(C) 26
(D) 30
(E) 31

12. As per the reports published in the newspapers the banks, particularly public sector banks are tying up with various rating agencies for providing a qualitative assessment of the credit needs of the borrowers. Which amongst the following is/are such credit rating agencies in India ?
1. CARE
2. CRISIL
3. ULIP
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) Only 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3

13. As per the newspaper reports the RBI is planning to introduce ‘Plastic Currency Notes’. What is/are the benefits of ‘Plastic Notes’ ?
1. Their Shelf life will be longer.
2. It will replace plastic money or credit, debit cards which are giving birth to many fraudulent practices.
3. Printing will be cheaper.
(A) Only 3
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these

14. ‘Sub Prime Lending’ is a term applied to the loans made to—
(A) Those borrowers who do not have a good credit history
(B) Those who wish to take loan against the mortgage of tangible assets
(C) Those who have a good credit history and are known to bank since 10 years
(D) Those borrowers who are most preferred customers of the Bank
(E) None of these

15. As per the reports published in various journals and newspapers the ‘small borrowers’ in rural areas still prefer to take informal route for their credit needs. Which of the following is the ‘informal route’ of credit in financial sector ?
(A) Credit cards
(B) Loan against gold from financial institute
(C) Debit cards
(D) Money lender
(E) None of these

16. The Planning Commission of India has set up a 12 member committee on financial sector reforms. Who is the Chairman of the Committee ?
(A) Janki Raman
(B) Raghuram Rajan
(C) Rakesh Mohan
(D) K. V. Kamath
(E) None of these

17. Basel-II norms are associated with which of the following aspects of the banking industry ?
(A) Risk management
(B) Manpower planning
(C) Retirement benefits for the employees
(D) Corporate Governance
(E) None of these

18. What is meant by ‘Underwriting’ the term frequently used in financial sector ?
(A) Under valuation of the assets
(B) The Act of taking on a risk for a fee
(C) Giving a Guarantee that a loan will not become a bad loan
(D) The act of permission to float an IPO
(E) None of these

19. The government of India recently constituted the New Finance Commission (13th). What are its major functions ? To decide—
1. The salary structure of the employees of the Central Government.
2. The distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between states and Central Govt.
3. Rate of Income Tax and other taxes collected by the Union Govt.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these

20. Who amongst the following was the Captain of the Indian cricket team which registered its victory in tri-series ODI matches against Australia played in March 2008 ?
(A) M.S. Dhoni
(B) Anil Kumble
(C) Rahul Dravid
(D) Saurav Ganguly
(E) Sachin Tendulkar

21. Mr. Nicolas Sarkozy who was the chief guest during the Republic Day Function 2008 is the—
(A) President of Brazil
(B) Prime Minister of Brazil
(C) President of France
(D) Prime Minister of France
(E) Foreign Secretary of USA

22. Who amongst the following has taken over as the President of Serbia after the General elections held there in February 2008 ?
(A) Boris Tadic
(B) Tomislav Nicolic
(C) Samak Sundaravej
(D) Novak Djokovic
(E) None of these

23. Indra K. Nooyi who was elected as the Chairperson of the US-India Business Council is the CEO of which of the following Companies ?
(A) Pepsi Co.
(B) Infosys
(C) Tata Consultancy Services
(D) NIIT
(E) None of these

24. Maria Sharapova won the Australian Open 2008 Women’s singles by defeating—
(A) Shahar Peer
(B) Kateryna Bondarenko
(C) Sania Mirza
(D) Victoria Azarenka
(E) Ana Ivanovic

25. Saina Nehwal won the Seniors’ Championship match of which of the following games held in Goa in January 2008 ?
(A) Golf
(B) Tennis
(C) Table tennis
(D) Archery
(E) Badminton

26. As per the news published in some newspapers magazines two PSUs National Thermal Power Corporation and Coal India Ltd. are going to float a joint venture ‘SPV’. What is the full form of ‘SPV’ ?
(A) Small Power Venture
(B) Special Purpose Vehicle
(C) Special Power Venture
(D) Small Purpose Vehicle
(E) None of these

27. The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) recently agreed to allow foreign direct investment in the field of mobile television services. Upto what extent FDI is allowed in this field ?
(A) 50%
(B) 60%
(C) 64%
(D) 70%
(E) 74%

28. As per the performance assessment data released by the Economic Advisory Council (EAC) in January 2008. Which of the following sectors registered a growth of 3•6 per cent ?
(A) Agriculture Sector
(B) Banking Sector
(C) Tourism Sector
(D) Aviation Services Sector
(E) None of these

29. Which of the following is the name of very violent and serious types of winds which bring lot of disaster ?
(A) Trade winds
(B) Hurricane
(C) Cirrus
(D) Stratus
(E) None of these

30. The Global Employment Trends Report 2008 published by the International Labour Organization has indicated that there may be increase in global unemployment. What according to them is/are the major reasons of this possibility ?
1. Turmoil in Credit Markets all over the world.
2. Rise in oil prices in international market.
3. Civil unrest in some under and undeveloped nations.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 2
(E) None of these

31. As we have noticed many banks of Indian origin are opening offices/branches in foreign countries. Why is this trend emerging at a very fast pace ?
1. These Banks wish to provide banking facilities to foreigners as banking facilities are not plenty in many foreign countries. India wants to take an advantage of the situation.
2. These banks wish to help Indian firms to acquire funds at internationally competitive rates.
3. These banks wish to promote trade and investment between India and other countries.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) Only 2 and 3

32. Many economists, bankers and researchers in India often advocate that banks should equip themselves for new challenges. These challenges are in which of the following shapes/forms ?
1. As Indian economy is getting increasingly integrated with the rest of the world the demand of the Corporate banking is likely to change in terms of size, composition of services and also the quality.
2. The growing foreign trade in India will have to be financed by the local banks.
3. Foreigners are habitual of the comforts provided by the technology. India has to do a lot in this reference.
(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) Only 3 is correct
(D) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(E) None of these

33. As per the reports published in the newspapers Indian Rupee is now fully accepted in Asian countries like, Singapore, Hong Kong, Malaysia etc. What does it really mean ?
1. Anybody from Asian country can purchase Indian Rupee and keep it in his/her bank account in his/her country without any restrictions.
2. Now people in these nations are not required to go for a double conversion first in dollar and then in rupee.
3. People travelling European/Asian countries can make their payments in rupee anywhere without any problem.
(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) Only 3 is correct
(D) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(E) None of these

34. Which of the following is not a banking/finance related term ?
(A) Credit wrap
(B) EMI
(C) Held to Maturity
(D) Exposure limit
(E) Diffusion

35. Very often we read about the Doha Ministerial Conference 2001 in reference to WTO negotiations. What were the major issues over which nations were of different opinions ?
1. Providing subsidy to agriculture.
2. Export of patented drugs/medicines by developed nations.
3. Restriction on natural movement of people from one nation to other.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 3
(E) None of these

36. The Technology Mission on Cotton was launched during Xth plan. The scheme was designed to get increase in production of cotton by which of the following levels by the end of the plan ?
(A) 100 lakh bales
(B) 150 lakh bales
(C) 175 lakh bales
(D) 200 lakh bales
(E) None of these

37. A National Development Fund was created by the Government of India a few years ago. What was the purpose of the fund ?
1. Boost investment in social sector projects to promote education, healthcare and
employment.
2. Capital investments in selected profitable PSEs to yield adequate returns.
3. To fund revision in pay structure of Central Government employees.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) None of these

38. Olympic 2008 are scheduled to be held in—
(A) Paris
(B) Tokyo
(C) London
(D) Moscow
(E) None of these

39. The general elections took place in which of the following countries in March 2008 ?
(A) Iran
(B) Iraq
(C) Afghanistan
(D) Myanmar
(E) Sri Lanka

40. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘Economic Nightmare of India’ ?
(A) Morarji Desai
(B) K. Rajeshwar Rao
(C) Charan Singh
(D) Jyoti Basu
(E) None of these

41. As per the targets for 11th plan educated unemployment is to be reduced to which of the following levels ?
(A) 5%
(B) 6%
(C) 7%
(D) 8%
(E) 9%

42. ‘Long Walk’ to Freedom’ is a book written by—
(A) Sonia Gandhi
(B) L. K. Advani
(C) Nelson Mandela
(D) Benazir Bhutto
(E) Nawaz Sheriff

43. India recently signed a pact with which of the following countries on solving the problems of Indian labour in that country ?
(A) Iran
(B) UAE
(C) Malaysia
(D) Kuwait
(E) None of these

44. Which of the following countries is trying to launch a Satellite to study the sun ?
(A) USA
(B) India
(C) Russia
(D) China
(E) None of these

45. Jang Hyun Jong who was adjudged as the ‘Asian Hockey Player of the year’ is from—
(A) China
(B) Singapore
(C) South Korea
(D) India
(E) None of these

46. Who amongst the following is the winner of Padma Vibhushan Awards given away recently ?
(A) Rahul Gandhi
(B) Priya Dutt
(C) Vinod Dua
(D) Ratan Tata
(E) None of these

47. Which of the following films was adjudged ‘Best Film’ in 14th Star Screen Awards given away in January 2008 ?
(A) Om Shanti Om
(B) Guru
(C) Taare Zameen Par
(D) Jab We Met
(E) Chak De India

48. A meeting of the European Leaders was held in January 2008 at which of the following places to discuss ‘Global Economic Turmoil’ ?
(A) London
(B) New Delhi
(C) New York
(D) Tokyo
(E) Milan

49. Castro Sibling is the new President of—
(A) Romania
(B) Cuba
(C) Israel
(D) Venezuela
(E) None of these

50. Kosovo declared itself independent from which of the following countries ?
(A) Ukraine
(B) Croatia
(C) Serbia
(D) Russia
(E) None of these

Answers with Explanations :

1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (E) 4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (B)
7. (D) According to Economic Survey 2007-08, the percentage growth in bank credit is 21•5%.
8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (A) 11. (E) 12. (A)
13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (B) 17. (A)
18. (A) 19. (B) 20. (A) 21. (C) 22. (A)
23. (A) 24. (E) 25. (E) 26. (B) 27. (E)
28. (A) 29. (B) 30. (D) 31. (E) 32. (A)
33. (D) 34. (E) 35. (A) 36. (D) 37. (A)
38. (E) 39. (A) 40. (C) 41. (A) 42. (C)
43. (D) 44. (A) 45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (E)
48. (A) 49. (E) 50. (E)

Bank Probationary Officers Model Paper

9:42:00 PM Bank Probationary Officers Model Paper No comments

Bank Probationary Officers Model Paper

Reasoning Ability Test

Directions—(Q. 1–5) For each of the following questions there is some relationship between the two terms to the left of :: and the same relationship obtains between the two terms to its right. In each of these questions the fourth term is missing. This term is one of the alternatives among the five terms given below. Find out this term.

1. ABCD is related to BEGI in the same way as BCDE is related to ... ?

(A) ADFH

(B) CFHJ

(D) CEGI

Ans : (B)

2. ABEF is related to BCFG in the same way as GHKL is related to ... ?

(A) FGKJ

(B) HILM

(D) HIML

Ans : (B)

3. BYCX is related to AZDW in the same way as DWEV is related to ... ?

(A) CEXV

(B) CXFU

(D) EWCX

Ans : (B)

4. 'CIRCLE' is related to 'RICELC' in the same way as 'SQUARE' is related to—

(A) UQSERA

(B) QUSERA

(D) QSUERA

Ans : (A)

5. 'JKLM' is related to 'XYZA' in the same way as 'NOPQ' is related to—

(A) RSTU

(B) YZAB

(D) BCDE

Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 6–15) Each of the following questions has four alternative responses. Select the correct response.

6. Which one of the following is same as liver, heart, kidney?

(A) Nose

(B) Blood

(D) Lung

Ans : (D)

7. Which one of the following is same as uncle, aunt, brother?

(A) Child

(B) Boy

(D) Nephew

Ans : (D)

8. Which one of the following is same as Jute, Cotton, Wool ?

(A) Nylon

(B) Rayon

(D) Terylene

Ans : (C)

9. Which one of the following is same as lead, convince, allure?

(A) Direct

(B) Order

(D) Fascinate

Ans : (D)

10. Which one of the following is same as flood, fire, cyclone?

(A) Accident

(B) Rain

(D) Damage

Ans : (C)

11. Which one of the following is same as carpenter, plumber, electrician ?

(A) Doctor

(B) Blacksmith

(D) Lawyer

Ans : (B)

12. Which one of the following is same as cork, plug, dam ?

(A) Obstruction

(B) Drain

(D) Tap

Ans : (A)

13. Which one of the following is same as red, yellow, blue?

(A) Sky

(B) Dark

(D) Bright

Ans : (C)

14. Which one of the following is same as desire, wish, want ?

(A) Pleasant

(B) Feel

(D) Satisfy

Ans : (C)

15. Which one of the following is same as ohm, volt, amp. ?

(A) Light

(B) Metre

(D) Watt

Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) In each of the sentences given below, there are two questions marks given one in the beginning and the other at the end. To fill up the question marks, there are few alternatives. Choose the correct alternative.

16. ( ? ) is related to Masculine in the same way Woman is related to ?

(A) Disguise, Modest

(B) Capacity, Woman

(D) Brave, Mrs.

Ans : (C)

17. ( ? ) is to Sky as Fish is to ?

(A) Blue, Swim

(B) Bird, Water

(D) Tree, Colour

Ans : (B)

18. ( ? ) is to Uncle as Mother is to ?

(A) Brother, Brought-up

(B) Father, Aunt

(D) Aunt, Father

Ans : (D)

19. ( ? ) is to Sri Lanka as Delhi is to ?

(A) Columbo, India

(B) Kathmandu, Capital

(D) Island, Harbour

Ans : (D)

20. ( ? ) is to Ivory as Deer is to ?

(A) White, Hunt

(B) Elephant, Horn

(D) Costly, Scarce

Ans : (B)

Directions—From questions 21 to 25 fill the correct pair in place of question marks.

21. Table is to ( ? ) as Cup is to ?

(A) Furniture, Tea

(B) Student, Horse

(D) Chair, Plate

Ans : (D)

22. Sugar is to ( ? ) as Mava is to ?

(A) Sweet, Sour

(B) Energy, Machine

(D) White, Sweet

Ans : (C)

23. ( ? ) is to Sun as Rain is to ?

(A) Moon, Rainbow

(B) Light, Cloud

(D) Day, Night

Ans : (B)

24. ( ? ) is to Brain as Mouth is to ?

(A) Skull, Tongue

(B) Hat, Lips

(D) Turban, Saliva

Ans : (A)

25. ( ? ) is to Touch as Ear is to ?

(A) Hand, Know

(B) Experience, Feeling

(D) Hair, Dirt

Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) In Column I are listed certain groups of individuals while in Column II are listed some of the characteristics against each group of individuals which are common to each member of that group.

Column I Column II

FHIJ TW

IJK PT

IJLM SUW

GHIKM RV

GHI QRV

FGI PR

HIJ QTW

IJL QSUW

GIJ PQS

26. Which individual has all the above characteristics?

(A) J

(B) I

(D) M

Ans : (B)

27. Which characteristics are found either in J or in K or in both but in M?

(A) P, Q, T

(B) P, Q, R, S

(D) U, V, T

Ans : (A)

28. Which Characteristics is common to G and H but not in M?

(A) S

(B) B

(D) R

Ans : (C)

29. Which Characteristics are common to H and J but not in K?

(A) P, Q

(B) Q, W

(D) R, W

Ans : (B)

30. Which Characteristics is not found either in F or in L or in both?

(A) Q

(B) U

(D) V

Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) In each of the following question, three words are given with four alternatives. One of the four alternatives is same as the three words given in beginning. Then find out the correct alternative answer.

31. Which one is the same as Mumbai, Kolkata, Cochin ?

(A) Delhi

(B) Kanpur

(D) Sholapur

Ans : (C)

32. Which one is the same as Coal, Ebony and Soot?

(A) Blush

(B) Raven

(D) Rust

Ans : (C)

33. Which one is the same as Basket, Pail and Pan ?

(A) Knife

(B) Spoon

(D) Bowl

Ans : (D)

34. Which one is the same as Emancipate, Free and Release?

(A) Ignore

(B) Pardon

(D) Quit

Ans : (C)

35. Which one is the same as Daisy, Pansy and Rose?

(A) Bed

(B) Violet

(D) Red

Ans : (C)

Directions—Find out the correct answer in each of the questions from 36 to 40.

36. Which one is the same as Arid, Parched and Droughty ?

(A) Draft

(B) Cow

(D) Dry

Ans : (D)

37. Which one is the same as Grandfather, Father and Brother?

(A) Baby

(B) Father-in-law

(D) Son-in-law

Ans : (C)

38. Which one is the same as Yellow, Orange and Green?

(A) Tree

(B) Purple

(D) Leaf

Ans : (B)

39. Which one is the same as Lungs, Liver and Kidneys?

(A) Heart

(B) Intestines

(D) Neck

Ans : (A)

40. Which one is the same as Lock, Shut and Fasten?

(A) Window

(B) Door

(D) Iron

Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 41–45) In each of the following questions, three words are given. Under them four alternatives are provided, one of which expresses most effectively the general characteristic if these three words. That alternative is your answer.

41. Aeroplane, Train, Truck

(A) Speed

(B) Rooms

(D) Transport

Ans : (D)

42. Wolf, Leopard, Deer

(A) Meat eater

(B) Jungles

(D) Cruel

Ans : (C)

43. Sword, Gun, Pistol

(A) Arms

(B) Constable

(D) War

Ans : (A)

44. Fraud, Jealously, Hatred

(A) Destruction

(B) Envy

(D) Quality

Ans : (C)

45. Novel, Epic, Drama

(A) Subject

(B) Literature

(D) Knowledge

Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 46–50) In each of the following questions, three words are given. They are followed by four words, one of which stands for the class to which these three words belong. Identify that word.

46. Wheat, Barley, Rice

(A) Food

(B) Gram

(D) Agriculture

Ans : (C)

47. Coal, Iron, Mica

(A) Rock

(B) Minerals

(D) Earth

Ans : (B)

48. Honesty, Credibility, Reliability

(A) Quality

(B) Dependability

(D) Nicety

Ans : (A)

49. Cap, Coat, Trousers

(A) Smart

(B) Shirt

(D) Tailor

Ans : (C)

50. Stool, Table, Chair

(A) Bench

(B) Furniture

(D) Office

Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 51–60) For each of the following questions, there are two words and five alternative answers. In each of the alternative answers there are two words. Then find out the alternative whose two words have the same relation as in the two words given in question.

51. Resignation : Office ::

(A) Competition : Game

(B) Illness : Hospital

(D) Moisture : Rain

(E) Appointment : Interview

Ans : (C)

52. Bunch : Key ::

(A) Hound : Pack

(B) Team : Competition

(D) Examination : Subject

(E) Bouquet : Flower

Ans : (E)

53. Profit : Loss ::

(A) Success : Failure

(B) Rupee : Paisa

(D) Multiplication : Addition

(E) Adult : Child

Ans : (A)

54. Sapling : Tree ::

(A) Horse : Mare

(B) Student: Teacher

(D) Tree : Furniture

(E) River : Brook

Ans : (C)

55. Supervisor : Worker ::

(A) Junior : Senior

(B) Superior : Inferior

(D) Debtor : Creditor

(E) Officer : Clerk

Ans : (E)

56. Malaria : Mosquito ::

(A) Poison : Death

(B) Rat : Plague

(D) Cholera : Water

(E) Medicine : Disease

Ans : (D)

57. Paisa : Rupee ::

(A) Kilogram : Quintal

(B) Metre : Centimetre

(D) Weight : Ton

(E) Rupee : Wealth

Ans : (A)

58. Poet : Verse ::

(A) Prose : Novelist

(B) Author : Book

(D) Publication : Editor

(E) Summary : Paraphrase

Ans : (B)

59. Water : Thirst ::

(A) Food : Hunger

(B) Sun : Energy

(D) Ice-cream : Cold

(E) Poison : Death

Ans : (A)

60. Pulp : Paper ::

(A) Wood : Table

(B) Cloth : Shirt

(D) Iron : Steel

(E) Wood : Sawdust

Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 61–70) For each of the following questions, there are two words and eight alternative answers. Then find out two such alternatives the relation in which is the same as in the two words given in the beginning.

61. Trees and Forest

(A) Ocean (B) Page

(E) Library (F) Ship

(G) Boys (H) Classes

Ans : (C, E)

62. Constable and Police

(A) Clerk (B) Hospital

(E) Girl (F) Doctor

(G) File (H) House

Ans : (B, F)

63. Brother-in-law and Sister

(A) I (B) Youth

(E) My (F) Beautiful Woman

(G) Damsel (H) Sister-in-law

Ans : (B, G)

64. Cold and Hot

(A) January (B) Monday

(E) March (F) Thursday

(G) Month (H) August

Ans : (A, D)

65. High and Low

(A) Far (B) Rent

(E) Distance (F) Fair

(G) Last (H) Clean

Ans : (A, D)

66. Unsuccess and Laziness

(A) Study (B) Success

(E) Labour (F) Lazy

(G) Game (H) Honesty

Ans : (E, B)

67. Car and Garage

(A) Horse (B) Grass

(E) Man (F) Stable

(G) Animal (H) Hive

Ans : (A, F)

68. Hand and Fingers

(A) Foot (B) Eyes

(E) Head (F) Stomach

(G) Nose (H) Hair

Ans : (E, H)

69. Oxygen and Man

(A) Petrol (B) Stool

(E) Driver (F) Wood

(G) Water (H) Fish

Ans : (G, H)

70. Neat and Clean

(A) Dirty (B) Tidy

(E) Wise (F) Ravi

(G) Foul (H) Beauty

Ans : (A, G)

Directions—(Q.71–75) In each of the following two columns, the groups of three words are given. Compare two columns and find the pairs given below each question, which satisfy the same relationship between the two groups of that pair.

Column I

(A) Cereal, Wheat, Tomato

(B) Seeds, Apple, Fruit

(D) Teacher, Writer, Speaker

(E) Stool, Furniture, Table

Column II

(P) Apple, Banana, Fruit

(Q) Wheat, Barley, Cereals

(R) Doctor, Painter, Father

(S) Cow, Mammal, Animal

(I) Soldier, Army, Civilian

71. (A) BP

(B) AQ

(D) EP

Ans : (D)

72. (A) BR

(B) AT

(D) DP

Ans : (C)

73. (A) DR

(B) BR

(D) CS

Ans : (A)

74. (A) BS

(B) AT

(D) DQ

Ans : (B)

75. (A) CR

(B) EQ

(D) DS

Ans : (B)

Bank PO Reasoning Ability

9:40:00 PM Bank PO Reasoning Ability 1 comment

Bank PO Reasoning Ability

1. ‘Captain’ is related to a ‘Team’ in the same way as ‘Director’ is related to

(1) Supervisor

(2) Employee

(3) Organisation

(4) Union

(5) Customer

2. Find the odd one out of the following options

(1) Aunt

(2) Child

(3) Father

(4) Niece

(5) Relation

3. Pointing to a photograph of Mahendra , Rajesh said. "The father of his sister is the husband of my wife’s mother". How is Rajesh related to Maheendra?

(1) Brother

(2) Brother-in-law

(3) Father-in-law

(4) Data not sufficient

(5) None of these

4. If ‘fork’ is called ‘plate’, ‘plate’ is called ‘knife’, ‘knife’ is called ‘jug’, ‘jug’ is called ‘glass’, ‘glass’ is called ‘cup’ and ‘cup’ is called ‘fork’, by what do we cut fruit?

(1) spoon

(2) jug

(3) glass

(4) saucer

(5) none of these

5. If ‘a’ is substituted by 26,’B’ by 25 and so on up to ‘Z’ which is substituted by 1, what will be the sum of the numbers substituted for the word ‘XRAY’?

(1) 33

(2) 40

(3) 37

(4) 73

(5) None of these

6. In a certain code COIMBATORE is written as DPJNCBUPSF. How is INDORE written in that code?

(1) JOENQF

(2) JMCPQD

(3) JOEPSF

(4) HMCNQD

(5) None of these

7. Gautami is elder to Seema but not to Deepika. Gitika is younger than Deepika. No one is elder to Binita. Who is youngest of them all?

(1) Seema

(2) Gautami

(3) Gitika

(4) Data not sufficient

(5) None of these

8. Raman is sitting to the immediate left of Harry but not next to Kamal. Mahesh is sitting to the right of Kamal. If the four friends are sitting in a circle who is sitting to the immediate right of Harry?

(1) Mahesh

(2) Kamal

(3) Raman

(4) Harry

(5) Cannot be determined

9. How many three letter meaningful English words can be formed from the word NOTE beginning with ‘T’ and without repeating any letter?

(1) Three

(2) One

(3) Two

(4) None

(5) None of these

Directions (11-15): Answer question 11 to 15 based on the following sequence:

A $ B # 9 G 3D K « M ? C Q 2 X 7 P 5 U 8 I 4 Y ə J11. How many elements in the above arrangement are both immediately preceded and immediately followed by a number?

(1) One

(2) Two

(3) Three

(4) Five

(5) None of these

12. Which of the following will be the fifteenth element from the left end if all the numbers are arranged in descending order from left to right, keeping the position of the other elements in arrangement un-changed?

(1) 5

(2) 4

(3) 7

(4) 8

(5) None of these

13. How many letters in the above arrangement are immediately followed by a symbol?

(1) Two

(2) Five

(3) Four

(4) Three

(5) None of these

14. Which of the following will be eighth to the left of the twelfth from the left end of the arrangement?

(1) #

(2) 7

(3) U

(4) 9

(5) None of these

15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(1) G$M

(2) K9Q

(3) ?D7

(4) 2MU

(5) PCI

16. In a certain code language’ In ba pe’ means ‘he has won’,'le ki ba’ means ‘she has lost’ and ‘in se pe’ means ‘he always won’. Which word in that language means ‘he’?

(1) in

(2) pe

(3) se

(4) Data not sufficient

(5) None of these

17. X is Y’s brother. S is T’s mother and X’s aunt. How is T related to X?

(1) Sister

(2) Cousin

(3) Aunt

(4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

18. If the letters of the word OBSERVANT are interchanged, such that the first becomes ninth, second becomes eighth, and so on, and the position of the fifth letter remains unchanged then what will be the new arrangement of letters?

(1) TNAVERSBO

(2) TNVARESBO

(3) NTAVERSBO

(4) VANTRESBO

(5) None of these

19. If 1 is coded as Ś, 5 is coded as %, 6 is coded as «, 3 is coded as +, 7 is coded as # and 4 is coded as ? What will be the correct form of the number 435671?

(1) ? + % « # Ś

(2) ? + % Ś # «

(3) ? + « % # Ś

(4) Ś # « % + ?

(5) None of these

20. Which of the following have the same relationship as BREAD:DBARE?

(1) SWORN: NSOWR

(2) FUNDS: FSDUN

(3) GLAZE : EGZAL

(4) LOWER: RLEWO

(5) None of these

Directions (21-25): Read the following information and attempt the given questions:

Six executive Aman, Bindu, Deepa, Jitu, Kamal and Priyanka have to advertise four products i.e. soap, watches, computers and chocolates on 3 different channels, i.e. Go, Come and Fun either alone or in pairs. An executive can visit only one channel and advertise only one product. No more than two executives can advertise on a channel.

(i) Bindu and Jitu both visit the same channel but advertise different products.

(ii) Aman who visits ‘Go’ advertises neither soap nor computers.

(iii) Kamal does not advertise chocolates.

(iv) No girl advertises soap.

(v) The two executives who advertise chocolates visit Spice

21. Who advertises watches?

(1) Deepa

(2) Kamal

(3) Aman

(4) Priyanka

(5) None of these

22. Which of the following Channel-product pairs in definitely incorrect?

(1) Go-watch

(2) Come-computer

(3) Go-soap

(4) Come-soap

(5) Come-watch

23. Which channel does Kamal visit?

(1) Go

(2) Fun

(3) Come

(4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

24. If Bipasha advertises computers which of the following must be true?

(1) Jitu advertises soap

(2) Jitu advertises watches

(3) Kamal advertises computers

(4) Kamal works for Fun

(5) None of these

25. What will Jitu advertise?

(1) Chocolates

(2) Watches

(3) Computers or watches

(4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

26. Swaroop and Simple want to attend a seminar together between 9 a.m. to 5 p.m. on Friday. Simple cannot leave till after her lunch break which begins at 1.30 p.m. Swaroop is free after her meeting which ends at noon. For how many hours can the two of them attend the seminar?

(1) 3 ½ hours

(2) 2 ½ hours

(3) 4 ½ hours

(4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

27. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ANSWER each of which has as many letters between them in the word as there are in the English language?

(1) One

(2) Two

(3) Four

(4) Three

(5) None of these

28. Find the odd one out

(1) 2

(2) 7

(3) 11

(4) 13

(5) 9

29. If all the letters in the word MERCIFUL are rearranged in alphabetical order and substituted by the alphabet preceding them in the English alphabet what will be the new arrangement of letters?

(1) BDHEKLQT (2) BDEHKLQT

(3) BDEHLKQT

(4) BDEJMLQT

(5) None of these

30. Out of 38 families in a housing society 5 subscribe to Hindi news-papers alone, 12 subscribe to both Hindi and Marathi newspapers. Find the

number of Maranthi news-paper subscribers.

(1) 9

(2) 21

(3) 17

(4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

Directions (31-35): Below are given letters and their numeric codes. Below that are given some conditions to be followed while codifying the given letter groups in each question. Study them and find out the correct numeric coded form of the given letter group in each question. If none of the coded forms is correct, your answer will be (5) i.e. ‘None of these’.

Letters

M Q I N E Y U G R

Numeric Codes

2 5 3 7 1 8 4 6 9

Conditions:

(i) If the first and last letters are vowels both are to be coded as Ś.

(ii) If the second letter is a vowel and the third letter is a consonant a single code is to be used and both are to be coded jointly as %.

(iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel both are to be coded as?

31. ENIMY

(1) 1%28

(2) ?732?

(3) 17328

(4) ?7328

(5) None of these

32. GENIR

(1) ?173?

(2) 6%39

(3) 6%79

(4) 61739

(5) None of these

33. QUERI

(1) 5%93

(2) ?413?

(3) ?4139

(4) ?419?

(5) None of these

34. EINUM

(1) 1%72

(2) 0%42

(3) 1374?

(4) 1%43

(5) None of these

35. UNGRE

(1) Ś769 Ś

(2) 4769 Ś

(3) 47691

(4) Ś7691

(5) None of these

Directions (36-40): In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows.

Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows.

Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows.

Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Give answer (5) if both conclusions I or II follow.

36. Statements: Some pencils are lead. All lead are ink

Conclusions:

I. Some ink are pencils.

II. All ink are lead.

37. Statements: Some ovens are refrigerator. Some refrigerators are ACs.

Conclusions:

I. Some ACs are ovens.

II. No. AC is oven.

38. Statements: All planes are birds. All birds are clouds.

Conclusions:

I. Some planes are clouds.

II. Some clouds are birds.

39. Statements: Some sweets are salt. No salt in spice.

Conclusions:

I.. Some sweets are spice.

II. No spice is salt.

40. Statements: Some papers are plastics. All papers are clothes.

Conclusions:

I. Some plastics are clothes.

II. Some plastics are papers.

Directions (41-45): Each of the following questions below consists a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide if the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both statements and:

Give answer (1) if the data in statements I alone is sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II is not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (4) if the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

41. How is ‘cricket’ written in a code language?

I. ‘Dinesh play cricket’ is written as ‘do si ha’.

II. ‘play cricket now’ is written as ‘ha si ma’.

42. Who is the oldest among L, M, N, O,P?

I. P is older than M and N but not O.

II. L is older than O.

43. When is Rahul’s birthday?

I. Rahul and Shivani are twins.

II. Rahul was born on the last day of February in a leap year.

44. What is the strength of the class?

I. Shekhar stood 28 ranks below the top ranker and Mahesh who stood 5 ranks below him stood last.

II. Jayesh was 9 ranks below Ramesh who stood 27th from the top.

45. How far does Shruti live from the school?

I. Shruti has to cycle 3 kms. To her friend Mina’s house which is 4 kms. From thee school.

II. Gitanjali lives exactly opposite the school and walks 2 kms. to reach Shruti’s house.

Directions (46-50): The following questions are based on the five three digit numbers given below:

972 526 487 359 251

46. If the positions of the firs and second digits are interchanged which of the following will be third if they are arranged in ascending order?

(1) 359

(2) 972

(3) 526

(4) 487

(5) 251

47. If 2 is added to the sum of the digits of each of the above numbers how many will be multiples of 5?

(1) None

(2) One

(3) Two

(4) Three

(5) None of these

48. If 1 is subtracted from the last digit of each of the above numbers the sum of the digits of how many of them are prime numbers?

(1) None

(2) Two

(3) One

(4) Three

(5) All five

49. If the digits in each of the above numbers are written in reverse order which will be the second highest number?

(1) 251

(2) 359

(3) 487

(4) 526

(5) 972

50. If the positions of the digits of each of the numbers are interchanged such that the first becomes second, second becomes third and third becomes firs, which, of the following will be the highest?

(1) 972

(2) 526

(3) 487

(4) 251

(5) 359

Answers

1. (3) 2. (5) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (2) 6. (3) 7. (4) 8. (2)

9. (1) 10. (1) 11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (1) 15. (5)

16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (5) 19. (1) 20. (5) 21. (3) 22. (4)

23. (1) 24. (2) 25. (3) 26. (1) 27. (2) 28. (5) 29. (2)

30. (5) 31. (3) 32. (2) 33. (4) 4. (5) 35. (1) 36. (1)

37. (3) 38. (5) 39. (2) 40. (5) 41. (4) 42. (5) 43. (2)

44. (1) 45. (3) 46. (1) 47. (4) 48. (3) 49. (3) 50. (5)

BANK PO QUATITATIVE APTITUDE

9:39:00 PM BANK PO QUATITATIVE APTITUDE No comments

BANK PO QUATITATIVE APTITUDE

1. Two numbers are respectively 25% and 20% less than a third number. What percent is the first number of the second.
(A) 5.85%
(B) 75.85%
(C) 80.60%
(D) 93.75%
Ans (D)
2. A pump can fill a tank with water in two hours. Because of a leak in the tank it was taking two 1/3 hours to fill the tank. The leak can drain all the water off the tank in.
(A) 8 hours
(B) 7 hours
(C) 13/3 hours
(D) 14 hours
Ans (D)
3. A can do a peace of work in 4 hours. B and C can do it in 3 hours. A and C can do it in two hours. How long will B take to do it?
(A) 10 hours
(B) 12 hours
(C) 8 hours
(D) 24 hours
Ans (B)
4. The difference between the simple and compound interest on a certain sum of money at 5% rate of interest p.a. for two years is Rs.15. Then the sum is _____
(A) Rs.6500
(B) Rs.5500
(C) Rs.6000
(D) Rs.7000
Ans (C)
5. A sum borrowed under compound interest doubles itself in 10 years. When will it become four fold of itself at the same rate of interest?
(A) 15 years
(B) 20 years
(C) 24 years
(D) 40 years
()Ans (B)
6. The students in three classes are in the ratio of 2:3:5 if 40 students are increased in each class the ratio changes to 4:5:7 if 40 students are increased in each class the ratio changes to 4:5:7 originally the total number of students was _______
(A) 100
(B) 180
(C) 200
(D) 400
Ans (C)
7. The ratio of incomes of two persons is 5:3 and that of their expenditure is 9.5. Find the income of each person if they save Rs.1300 and Rs.900 respectively.
(A) Rs.4000, Rs.2400
(B) Rs.3000, Rs.1800
(C) Rs.5000, Rs.3000
(D) Rs.4500, Rs.2700
Ans (A)
8. A fort has provision for 50 days if after 10 days they are strengthen by 500 men and the remaining food lasts 35 days. How many men were there in the fort initially?
(A) 3500
(B) 3000
(C) 2500
(D) 4000
Ans (A)
9. A number is increased by 20% and then it is decreased by 10%. Find the net increase or decrease in %
(A) 10% increase
(B) 10% decrease
(C) 8%increase
(D) 8% decrease
Ans (C)
10. The product of two positive numbers is 2500 if one number is 4 times the other, the sum of the two numbers is ______
(A) 25
(B) 125
(C) 225
(D) 250
Ans (B)
11. Which of the following is the largest number which is exactly devisable by 7,9 and 15?
(A) 9450
(B) 9765
(C) 9865
(D) 9550
Ans (B)
12. What percent of 5/8 is 8/5?
(A) 100
(B) 64
(C) 256
(D) 1024
Ans (C)
13. 2.3 + 6.5 - 7.1 + 4.9 -1.4 + 8.6 - 5.3?
(A) 8.5
(B) 8.6
(C) 8.7
(D) 8.4
Ans (A)
14. Example of a mathematical statement is ______
(A) (10+8)-9
(B) 2x+3=5
(C) 5<9+3
(D) x+3
Ans (C)
15. If 4x = 10 then X=?
(A) 10-4
(B) 10 X 4
(C) 10 +4
(D) 10/4
Ans (D)
16. a and b are two numbers. The property of a = b then b=a is called _______
(A) Reflexive property
(B) Transitive property
(C) Symmetric property
(D) Associative property
Ans (C)
17. "10 added to 5 times x is equal to 20" in symbolic form is _______
(A) 5(x+10)=20
(B) 5x+10=20
(C) x/5+10=20
(D) 5x-10=20
Ans (B)
18. The point equidistant from the vertices of a triangle is its_____
(A) Orthocentre
(B) Centroid
(C) circumcentre
(D) Incentre
Ans (C)
19. The centroid of a triangle is the point of concurrence of its
(A) angle bisectors
(B) perpendicular bisector
(C) altitudes
(D) medians
Ans (D)
20. If the angles of a triangle are in the ratio 1:2:7 then the triangle is ______
(A) acute angled
(B) obtuse angled
(C) right angled
(D) isosceles
Ans (D)
21. Two sides of a triangle are 8cm and 11cm then the possible third side is____
(A) 1 cm
(B) 2 cm
(C) 3 cm
(D) 4 cm
Ans (D)
22. A triangle always has exactly
(A) one acute angle
(B) at least two acute angles
(C) exactly one right angle
(D) exactly two acute angles
Ans (B)
23. Two trains A and B are running at the speeds of 45 KMPH and 25 KMPH respectively in the same direction. The faster train i.e. train A crosses a Man sitting in the slower train B in 18 secs. Find the length of the train A?
(A) 100 metres
(B) 120 metres
(C) 150 meters
(D) 180 meters
Ans (A)
24. A circular road runs round a circular ground. If the difference between the circumference of the outer circle and inner circle is 44 meters, find the width of road.
(A) 8 meters
(B) 7 meters
(C) 17 meters
(D) 9 meters
Ans (B)
25. A and B started a business in partnership. A invested Rs.2000/- for six months and B invested Rs.1500 for 8 months. What is the share of A in total profit of Rs.510?
(A) Rs.250
(B) Rs.255
(C) Rs.275
(D) Rs.280
Ans (B)

Bank of India Clerk Exam Solved Paper 2008

9:37:00 PM Bank of India Clerk Exam Solved Paper 2008 No comments

Bank of India Clerk Exam Solved Paper 2008

(Held on 22-6-2008)

English Language

Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

The King of Kanchi set off to conquer Karnat. He was victorious in batttle. The elephants were laden with sandalwood, ivory, gold and precious stones taken from the conquered kingdom of Karnat. They would be a part of the victory parade for his subjects. On his way back home he stopped at a temple, finished his prayers to the goddess and turned to leave. Around his neck was a garland of scarlet hibiscus and as was the custom for all, his forehead was anointed with red sandal paste. His Minister and the court jester were his only companions. At one spot, in a mango grove by the wayside, they spied some children play. The King said, “Let me go and see what they are playing.”

The children had lined up two rows of clay dolls and were playing warriors and battles. The King asked, “Who is fighting whom ?” They said, “Karnat is at battle with Kanchi.”

The King asked, “Who is winning and who is the loser ?” The children puffed their chests up and said, “Karnat will win and Kanchi will lose.” The Minister froze in disbelief, the King was furious and the jester burst into laughter.

The King was soon joined by his troops and the children were still immersed in their game. The King commanded, “Cane them hard.” The children’s parents came running from the nearby village and said, “They are naive, it was just a game, please grant them pardon.” The King called his commander and ordered, “Teach these children and the village a lesson so that they never forget the King of Kanchi.” He went back to his camp.

That evening the Commander stood before the King. He bowed low in shame and said, “Your Majesty, with the exception of hyenas and vultures, all lie silent in the village.” The Minister said, “His Majesty’s honour has been saved.” The priest said, “The goddess has blessed our King.” The jester said, “Your Highness, please grant me leave to go now.” The King asked, “But why ?” The jester said, “I cannot kill, I cannot maim, I can only laugh at God’s gift of life.” Trembling in the face of the king’s anger he bravely

continued, “If I stay in your Majesty’s court, I shall become like you and I shall forget how to laugh.”

1. Why were the elephants carrying loads of gold and other valuables ?

(A) This was what the king had looted from Karnat to distribute among his soldiers as a reward

(B) This was the king’s offering to the deity out of gratitude for making him victorious

(D) So that the people of the kingdom of Karnat acknowledged him as their new ruler

(E) None of these

2. Why did the king anoint his head with red sandal paste ?

(A) As a mark of celebration to show he had been victorious

(B) It was the usual practice for all devotees at the temple

(D) The priest requested him to do so

(E) To show his soldiers that he had visited the temple

3. Which of the following cannot be said about the jester ?

1. He was not a loyal subject of the king.

2. He was afraid of the king’s temper.

3. He did not support the king’s war against Karnat.

(A) Both 1 and 3

(B) Only 1

(D) All 1, 2 and 3

(E) None of these

4. What excuse was given for the childrens’ behaviour ?

(A) They were disobedient to their parent’s wishes

(B) They were unaware of the true facts of the battle

(D) They were in the habit of lying

(E) None of these

5. Why did the jester laugh at the children’s reply to the king ?

1. They correctly predicted the outcome of the battle.

2. Their reply was cheeky because they knew he was the king.

3. He wanted to show that their reply was a joke to save them from being punished by the king.

(A) Only 1

(B) Both 1 and 2

(D) Both 2 and 3

(E) None of these

6. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage ?

(A) The king stopped at the temple to see what else could be plundered

(B) The people of the village to which the children belonged developed great respect for the king

(D) The jester was unhappy that the king had defeated the army of Karnat

(E) The children had shown disrespect to the goddess by playing so close to the temple

7. Why did the jester resign from his post ?

(A) He felt that the king was too influenced by the Minister

(B) To show that he disapproved of the king’s action of punishing the children

(D) He was no longer able to make the king laugh

(E) None of these

8. Which of the following describes the Minister ?

1. He was jealous of the jester.

2. He was the king’s most valuable advisor.

3. He did not have a good sense of humour.

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 3

(D) Both 1 and 2

(E) None of these

9. Which of the following was/were the outcome(s) of the soldiers beating the children ?

1. The animals began to howl and wanted to attack the soldiers.

2. The children’s parents went to the king to beg for mercy.

3. The priest offered prayers to the goddess of the temple.

(A) Only 1

(B) All 1, 2 and 3

(D) Only 2

(E) None of these

10. Why was the king angry with the children ?

(A) Because the game they were playing was dangerous

(B) They had lied to him

(D) They had unknowingly insulted him

(E) They were rude to him

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. froze

(A) cold

(B) numb

(D) stood still

(E) chill

12. leave

(A) holiday

(B) transfer

(D) permission

(E) farewell

13. spied

(A) noticed

(B) keep watch

(D) spot

(E) caught

Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed inbold as used in the passage.

14. immersed in

(A) safe from

(B) distracted from

(D) drowning in

(E) entertained by

15. pardon

(A) punishment

(B) excuse

(D) intolerance

(E) imprison

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence

grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.

16. Your bonus will dependent the quality of your work.

(A) is dependable

(B) depends on

(D) going to depend

(E) No correction required

17. He did not ask for a raise since he had fear to lose his job.

(A) was fearful of

(B) was feared to

(D) had been afraid to

(E) No correction required

18. The organizers agreed to shift the conference at some place convenience to all participants.

(A) any of the place convenient

(B) at places convenient

(D) to a place convenient

(E) No correction required

19. As compared to last year there has been a sharp rise in interest rates.

(A) sharper rise of

(B) as sharp a rise

(D) sharply rising

(E) No correction required

20. In the 1970s banks required to submit their detailed plans of expansion to RBI.

(A) were required to submit

(B) required for submission

(D) requirement of submitting

(E) No correction required

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Rearrange the following Six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them—

1. I had paid a lot of attention during training and could easily answer the questions till I came to the last one. What is the name of the lady who cleans your floor ?

2. ‘Yes’, he replied. “In your career you will meet many people all of whom are significant even if all you do is greet them.”

3. I thought the question was a joke. I had seen her but how would I know her name ?

4. During my internship we were given a quiz to see how much we had learnt.

5. I have never forgotten this lesson.

6. I submitted my paper leaving the last question blank and asked the manager if it would count for assessment.

21. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(D) 4

(E) 5

22. Which of the following will be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement ?

(A) 2

(B) 3

(D) 6

(E) 5

23. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(D) 4

(E) 5

24. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(D) 4

(E) 5

25. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(D) 4

(E) 5

Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each sentence below four words have been printed in bold which are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these words may be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the wrongly spelt or inappropriate word. The letter of that word is the answer. If all the words are correctly spelt and are appropriate the answer is (E), i.e. ‘All correct’.

26. My gole (A) is to acquire (B) a position (C) of authority (D) and respect within the organization. All correct (E)

27. The refusal (A) of the Ministry to clear pending (B) dues is a course (C) for concern (D) . All correct (E)

28. He was convinced (A) that discipline (B) and hard work would result (C) in dividents (D) in the long run. All correct (E)

29. This is a company which believes (A) in transparency (B) and appointment is done strictly (C) on merit (D). All correct (E)

30. There will be a decline(A) in the probability (B) of oil companies because of the hike (C) in oil prices (D). All correct (E)

Directions—(Q. 31–40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it.The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) i.e. ‘No error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)

31. The revised government’s (A) /guidelines have reduced (B)/ the number of mergers (C) / taking place among banks. (D) No error (E)

32. I do not know (A) / who of the (B) /new trainees should (C) / be confirmed. (D) No error (E)

33. To promote India as (A) / a tourist destination (B)/ the government has organized (C) / many cultural programmes. (D) No error (E)

34. Banks in India (A) / cannot open ATMs (B)/ except obtaining (C) / approval from RBI. (D) No error (E)

35. Today the success of (A) / companies depends on the (B)/ quality of their products and(C) /efficient managing staff. (D) No error (E)

36. Ashok has managed to (A) / achieve his sales targets (B)/ for the quarter very easily (C) / than we expected. (D) No error (E)

37. He did not grant (A) / their request for a loan (B)/ although it would (C) / displease his boss. (D) No error (E)

38. At present oil companies (A) / are making a loss of (B)/ rupees five on all (C) / litre of petrol that they sell. (D) No error (E)

39. The manager’s belief that (A) / Ramesh is (B)/ incompetent is not (C) / necessary true. (D) No error (E)

40. Since I was doing (A) / my MBA I initially (B)/ chose to specialize (C) / in marketing management. (D) No error (E)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

He was a charismatic leader, an entrepreneur and a highly effective manager all rolled into one. As a leader, he…(41)… the company’s growth plan in a dedicated manner and he never …(42)… focus. The cement industry in those days was doing badly. …(43)… to everyone’s expectations he sanctioned an additional plant in …(44)… time. He was …(45)… that since the cement industry was cyclic in nature, by the time the plant was …(46)… the market would have improved. It did happen and the decision brought rich …(47)… when the plant was commissioned.

Not only was he a great entrepreneur but he also …(48)… all his senior people to be ‘practising entrepreneurs’. I have seen a similar example at the Asian Institute of

Management, which allows its professors to …(49)… their own business. This made their lectures more practical and less theoretical. It is the …(50)… of the Institute’s success.

41. (A) achieved

(B) implemented

(D) persevered

(E) aimed

42. (A) moved

(B) shifts

(D) changes

(E) lost

43. (A) Contrary

(B) Opposite

(D) Obedient

(E) Different

44. (A) any

(B) mean

(D) no

(E) less

45. (A) known

(B) calculating

(D) dreamt

(E) surely

46. (A) operational

(B) install

(D) produced

(E) new

47. (A) supply

(B) diversity

(D) pay

(E) knowledge

48. (A) thought

(B) tried

(D) encourage

(E) wanted

49. (A) expand

(B) function

(D) run

(E) risk

50. (A) responsibility

(B) secret

(D) prize

(E) value

Answers with Explanations

1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (E)

6. (C) 7. (E) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (D)

11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (A)

16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (D) 19. (E) 20. (A)

21. (A) 22. (E) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (C)

26. (A) Correct spelling is ‘goal’.

27. (C) Correct spelling is ‘cause’.

28. (D) Correct spelling is ‘dividends’.

29. (E) 30. (B)

31. (A) Write ‘the government’s revised’.

32. (B) Write ‘which of the’.

33. (C) Write ‘the government is organizing’.

34. (C) Write ‘without obtaining’.

35. (D) Write ‘efficient managerial staff’.

36. (C) Change ‘very easily’ to ‘more easily’.

37. (C) Write ‘even though it would’.

38. (C) Write ‘each in place of ‘all’.

39. (D) Write ‘necessarily true’.

40. (B) Delete ‘my’.

41. (B) 42. (C) 43. (A) 44. (D) 45. (B)

46. (A) 47. (C) 48. (E) 49. (D) 50. (B)

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